Re: OT: 24Bit/96Khz vs 16Bit/ 44.1Khz recording

[andy butler <akbutler@tiscali.co.uk>]

Whose on first base?


I didn't mean that. 

rather to question what the *numerical* bit depth of the 
12.288Mhz sampling would be.

I was prompted to doing that by looking up 
"how does an oversampling ADC work?"
and reading that the sampling was at 1bit.


Now, I'm easily convinced that sampling at 16bit 12.288Mhz
and digital filtering to 44kHz would rid of aliasing very easily,
....but not so convinced (yet) knowing about the 1 bit sampling.

andy




Charles Zwicky wrote:
> Bit depth is independent of sample rate. 
> The bit depth simply determines the number of discreet amplitude levels which can be quantified at each sample. The number is expressed as an exponent of 2 (because each bit is binary - a 1 or a 0).  16 bits = 2^16 = 16,535 amplitude values, 24 bits = 2^24
> =16,777,216...!
>
>
> Sent from my iPad Nano
>
> On Dec 16, 2011, at 4:42 AM, andy butler <akbutler@tiscali.co.uk> wrote:
>
> > Charles Zwicky wrote:
> >
> > > 256 x 48khz  =  128 x 96khz  =  64 x 192khz = 12.288Mhz
> > > In other words, the input is sampled at rate of 12.288Mhz independent of 
> > > the system sampling rate.
> > > For one thing, this means that aliasing is nonexistent even at a "44.1khz" sample rate.  
> >
> > Interesting,
> > what's the bit depth at the 12.288Mhz rate?
> >
> > andy