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hmm, the impression i've been under (due to music history classes in college) is: 1. bach did not have a "chordal" language to work with, he worked with interweaving melodies (to say the least)....he did not think in major and minor triads. (at least not verticaly...i believe that intervals were considered important as they were presented in melodic lines (doctrine of affections). 2. the "music theory" that we are exposed (subjected) to in music school is really rameau's analysis (100 years later) of what bach did naturally...the chord progressions, no paralell 5ths, contrary movement are all "rules" set up to emulate what bach's intuition and ear made him do instinctavly. 3. it really is a testament to bach's genius that his work was so in tune with "nature" (the physics of sound) and the overtone series....these structures of sound were seemingly transparent to bach, and he intuitively was able to make "nature speak through music". please correct me where i'm wrong...some other time, i'll post some of my own "theory of modern music" ideas. deknow